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Do you want to pass the Microsoft 70-542 exam ? This braindumps was updated in 2010-9-26, and also it is the world’s first offer.

 

70-542CSHARP   122Q&A

• Questions and Answers : 122Q&A
• Update Time : 2010-9-26
• Price :  $90.

70-542VB             122Q&A

• Questions and Answers : 122Q&A
• Update Time : 2010-9-26
• Price :  $89 

 

Are you ready to participate in this 70-542 exam then? First of all look at it under the DEMO, you will find after reading our item bank is the best, but also hundred percent guarantee that you pass the exam!

 

Look the DEMO first :

 

1. You create a Microsoft Office SharePoint Server 2007 portal site. The site contains a document retention policy for request for proposal (RFP) documents.

You need to customize the policy to ensure that a notification is sent to each project manager when the RFP date expires.

What should you do?

A. Implement a custom IPolicyFeature.OnCustomDataChange method that generates an e-mail message.

B. Implement a custom IPolicyFeature.ProcessListItemOnRemove method that generates an e-mail message.

C. Create a document retention workflow that monitors the expiration date of RFP documents and generates an e-mail message.

D. Extend the built-in policy feature definition to use a custom policy resource expiration action that generates an e-mail message.

Answer: D

 

2. You are creating a Microsoft Office SharePoint Server 2007 site. A document library contains documents on new products.

The documents must contain a label that denotes the product status.

You need to add a label to all documents in the library.

What should you do?

A. Modify Variation Labels from the Site Collection Administration page.

B. Start an approval workflow each time a new document is added to the library.

C. Modify the document template for the existing document library to include the label.

D. Create an Information Management Policy feature for the document library that enforces label creation.

Answer: D

 

3. You are creating a Microsoft Office SharePoint Server 2007 site.

You have a document library that is subject to an audit.

You need to prevent relevant records from expiring during an ongoing audit.

What should you do?

A. Enable Record routing on the related Records Center site.

B. Create a hold for the audit and add all relevant documents.

C. Remove all users of the document library from the data reader role on the site configuration database.

D. Create an Information Management Policy feature that tracks audit information. Attach the policy to the document library.

Answer: B

 

4. Your company has a Microsoft Office SharePoint Server 2007 farm. The farm contains two site collections named Draft and ProductionReady.

You configure the farm to deploy content incrementally from the Draft site collection to the ProductionReady site collection.

You need to ensure that the content authors have a higher priority for pages that they deploy to the ProductionReady site collection.

What are two possible ways to achieve this goal?  (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A. Add the content authors to the Administrators site group.

B. Add the content authors to the Quick Deploy site group.

C. Execute the QuickDeploy method of the PublishingPage object that references the pages of the content authors.

D. Set the Audience property of the PublishingPage object for the pages of the content authors to an audience that contains the content authors.

Answer: BC

 

5. You have two Microsoft Office SharePoint Server 2007 site collections named Staging and Production. The Staging site collection runs on Server A. The Production site collection runs on Server B. Server A and Server B are located on separate networks. You need to write a script that replicates content from the Staging site collection to the Production site collection. What should you do? (To answer, move the appropriate three actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

 

Answer:

 

 

6. You are deploying a Microsoft Office SharePoint Server 2007 hierarchy of sites from a development environment to a staging environment on the same server farm.

The development site hierarchy contains a corporate intranet site and departmental sites. Each departmental site contains subsites.

You need to recreate the hierarchy of development sites in the staging environment.

What should you do?

A. Create and implement a site template.

B. Create and implement a portal site template.

C. Create an empty site collection on the server farm and use Page Publishing to duplicate pages.

D. Create copies of the site definition files, page layouts, master pages, and Web Part assemblies for each site to be created.

Answer: B

 

7. Your company uses a portal site template to recreate site hierarchies.

You need to add additional sites to the hierarchy that is defined in the portal site template.

What should you do?

A. In the Webtemp*.xml file, add a Template element that contains the site definitions for the new sites.

B. Add additional Web elements to the XML definition file of the portal site template.

C. Add additional Webtemp*.xml files to C:\Program Files\Common Files\Microsoft Shared Debug\Web Server Extensions\12\TEMPLATE\1033\XML.

D. Update an existing site to include the new hierarchy and create a new site template on the Site Settings page.

Answer: B

 

8. You are creating a Microsoft Office SharePoint Server 2007 application. The application reads data from the Microsoft Office Excel 2007 workbook named SalesGoals.xlsx. SalesGoals.xlsx is located in a document library. The first sheet of the SalesGoals.xlsx workbook contains the following information.

 

You need to retrieve the values for 2008 from within your application.

Which two actions should you perform?  (Each correct answer provides part of the solution. Choose two.)

A. Instantiate a new RangeCoordinates object.

B. Instantiate the Microsoft Office Excel Web Services service.

C. Call the GetRangeA1 method by passing B3:D3 as a parameter.

D. Call the GetRange method along with a RangeCoordinates object by using the following parameters. column=2, row=3, height=1, width=3

Answer: BC

 

9. Your company stores employee details in a Microsoft SQL Server database. You are creating a Report Center site on a Microsoft Office SharePoint Server 2007 server.

You need to ensure that a report on employee details can be generated in the Report Center site.

What should you do?

A. Add the Data Connections library to the trusted file locations.

B. Import the application definition to the Business Data Connector.

C. Import the Office Data Connection file to the trusted data providers.

D. Create an Office Data Connection file in a trusted Data Connections library.

Answer: D

 

10. You are creating a Microsoft Office SharePoint Server 2007 Report Center Web site. Your company stores product data in a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 database named Product Management.

You need to ensure that the product data is available for use in Microsoft Office Excel 2007 reports.

What should you do?

A. Upload a custom Office Data Connection file to the Data Connections library.

B. Upload a custom set of Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services Report Model files to the Data Connections library.

C. Create a single sign-on (SSO) provider that manages access to the Product Management database.

D. Create a Business Data Connection for the Product Management database, and define entities in the Business Data Catalog (BDC) definition.

Answer: A

 

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Exam Number/Code : EX0-102
Exam Name : Microsoft Operations Framework,MOFF

  One year free update

 Once failed,100% refund

• Questions and Answers : 74Q&A
• Update Time : 2010-9-26
• Price : $129.00 $109.00

 

Look the DEMO first :

 

1. What does the focus of the Change and Configuration SMF in the Plan phase include?

A.Architectural change

B.Corporate strategy transfer to IT strategy

C.Legal and compliance representation

D.Process and procedure

 

ANSWER: A

 

 

2. Which statement is true about the SMFs in the Operate Phase?

A.All SMFs feed the Deliver Phase.

B.The Customer Service SMF focuses on how to resolve complex problems.

C.The SMFs are dependant on each other.

D.The SMFs are sequential.

 

ANSWER: C

 

 

3. Which SMF provides root cause analysis?

A.Incident Management

B.Problem Management

C.Stabilizing

D.Testing

 

ANSWER: B

 

 

4. What does MOF organize?

A.Activities and processes into SMF, which are grouped together in phases that mirror the IT service lifecycle.

B.Activities and processes into phases, which are grouped into SMFs that mirror the IT service lifecycle.

C.Activities and processes into SMFs, which are directed by Management Reviews that mirror the IT service lifecycle.

D.Activities and processes into phases, which are directed by Management Reviews that mirror the IT service lifecycle.

 

ANSWER: A

 

 

5. Which statement of the IT service lifecycle is not correct?

A.It isolates risk to the Operate phase.

B.It addresses the design and delivery of the IT service.

C.It describes the life of an IT service.

D.It represents planning and optimizing the IT service to align with the business strategy.

 

ANSWER: A

 

 

6. What is the IT service lifecycle composed of?

A.Build phase, Deliver phase, Operate phase, Manage layer

B.Manage Layer, Plan phase, Deploy phase, Operate phase

C.Manage Layer, Plan phase, Deliver phase, Operate phase

D.Plan phase, Develop phase, Operate phase, Manage phase

 

ANSWER: C

 

 

7. Which is a goal of MOF?

A.ensure that business oversight governs IT service lifecycle activity to promote business/IT alignment

B.ensure that the investment in IT delivers expected business value at an acceptable level of risk

C.provide guidance to Finance and Accounting groups to successfully audit services delivered by IT

D.provide a common reference standard for any enterprise offering IT services to internal and external customers

 

ANSWER: B

 

 

8. Is the Portfolio Management Review focused on understanding the state of supply and demand for IT services and directing investments to make sure that the business value of IT is realized?

A.Yes

B.No

 

ANSWER: B

 

 

9. What is a goal of the Plan phase?

A.Delivered Services are adaptable to the changing needs of the business

B.Packaged product deployments are deployed in line with business requirements

C.To ensure that deployed services operated in line with the agreed-to SLA targets

D.To establish an integrated approach to IT Service Management activities

 

ANSWER: A

 

 

10. What Management Review (MR) determines whether IT is working on the right things and clarifies the business value of proposed projects?

A.Policy and Control

B.Portfolio

C.Release Readiness

D.Service Alignment

 

ANSWER: B

 

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70-685 DEMO :

 

1. All client computers on your company network run Windows 7 and are members of a Windows Server 2008 R2 domain. The R&D department staff are local administrators on their computers and are members of the R&D global security group.

A new version of a business software application is available on the network.

You plan to apply an AppLocker security policy to the R&D group.

You need to ensure that members of the R&D group are not allowed to upgrade the software.

What should you do?

A. Create an Audit only restriction based on the version of the software.

B. Create an Audit only restriction based on the publisher of the software.

C. Create an Enforce rule restriction based on the version of the software.

D. Create an Enforce rule restriction based on the publisher of the software.

Answer: C

 

2. All client computers on your company network run Windows 7 and are members of an Active Directory Domain Services domain.

AppLocker is configured to allow only approved applications to run.

Employees with standard user account permissions are able to run applications that install into the user profile folder.

You need to prevent standard users from running unauthorized applications.

What should you do?

A. Create Executable Rules by selecting the Create Default Rules option.

B. Create Windows Installer Rules by selecting the Create Default Rules option.

C. Create the following Windows Installer Rule:

Deny �C Everyone – %OSDRIVE%\Users\<user name>\Downloads\*

D. Create the following Executable Rule:

Deny – Everyone – %OSDRIVE%\Users\<user name>\Documents\*

Answer: A

 

3. All client computers on your company network were recently upgraded from Windows Vista to Windows 7.

Several employees use a scanner to import document images into a database. They install a new scanning application on their computers. The application updates the device driver for the scanners as part of the installation process.

Employees report that the application can no longer connect to the scanner.

You need to ensure that the employees can use the scanner.

What should you do?

A. Roll back the device driver to the previous version.

B. Reinstall the application in Windows Vista compatibility mode.

C. Set the application compatibility properties to run the application as an administrator.

D. Restart the computer by using the System Configuration tool to load only basic devices and services.

Answer: A

 

4. This question is the first in a series of questions that all present the same scenario.

For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.

Start of repeated scenario

You are an enterprise desktop support technician for Consolidated Messenger.

Network Configuration

The company has three offices named Office1, Office2, and Office3. The offices connect to each other over the Internet by using VPN connections. Each office has an 802.11g wireless access point. All wireless access points are configured to use Radius01 for authentication.

Active Directory Configuration

The network contains one Active Directory domain named consolidatedmessenger.com. The relevant organizational unit structure is shown in the following diagram.

The relevant Group Policy objects (GPOs) in the domain are configured as shown in the following table.

Group Policy name	Linked to OU
Desktops	Desktops
Laptops	Laptop
ServerComputers	Servers
AllComputers	CorpComputers
AllUsers	UserAccounts

Applications

The relevant applications on the network are shown in the following table.

Application name	Type	Description
FinanceApp1	Windows Application	A financial analysis application that is used by the finance users.
ERPApp1	Windows Application	A new ERP application that is deployed in a pilot project.

Server Configuration

The relevant servers are configured as shown in the following table.

Server name	Server role(s)	Office
DC01	Domain controller, DNS	Office1
DC02	Domain controller, DNS	Office1
File01	File server, DHCP	Office1
Radius01	Network Policy Server (NPS)	Office1
DC03	Domain controller, DNS, DHCP	Office2
DC04	Domain controller, DNS, DHCP	Office3

Client Configuration

Each office has 500 desktop computers that run Windows 7 Enterprise.

There are 250 mobile users that travel regularly between all three offices. The mobile users have laptop computers that run Windows 7 Enterprise.

To prevent the spread of malware, the company restricts the use of USB devices and only allows the use of approved USB storage devices.

Printers

The marketing group has several printers that are shared on File01. A shared printer name Printer1 is a high-performance, black-and-white printer. A shared printer named Printer2 is a high-definition, photo-quality, color printer. Printer2 should only be used to print marketing brochures.

End of repeated scenario

The chief financial officer (CFO) releases new guidelines that specify that only users from finance are allowed to run FinanceApp1.

Users in the Marketing OU report that they can run FinanceApp1.

You need to ensure that only users in the Finance OU can run FinanceApp1.

What should you do?

A. In the AllComputers GPO, create a new AppLocker executable rule.

B. In the Desktops GPO and the Laptops GPO, create a new Windows Installer rule.

C. In the AllComputers GPO, create a software restriction policy and define a new hash rule.

D. In the Desktops GPO and the Laptops GPO, create a software restriction policy and define a new path rule.

Answer: A

 

5. This question is the first in a series of questions that all present the same scenario.

For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.

Start of repeated scenario

You are an enterprise desktop support technician for City Power & Light.

City Power & Light is a utility company. The company has a main office and a branch office. The main office is located in Toronto. The branch office is located in Boston. The main office has 1,000 employees. The branch office has 10 employees.

Active Directory Configuration

The network contains a single Active Directory domain named cpandl.com. The functional level of the forest is Windows Server 2008 R2.

Server Configuration

All servers run Windows Server 2008 R2. The relevant servers in the main office are configured as shown in the following table.

Server name	Role	IP address
DC1	Global catalog, DNS server	192.168.1.5
DC2	Global catalog, DNS server	192.168.2.2
DC3	Global catalog, DNS server	192.168.3.2
DC4	Global catalog, DNS server	192.168.4.2
CA1	Enterprise root certification authority (CA)	192.168.1.4
Server1	File and Print Server, DHCP server, VPN server	192.168.1.3
Server2	File and Print Server, VPN server	192.168.2.3
Server3	File and Print Server	192.168.3.3
Server4	DirectAccess server	192.168.1.7

All computers in the main office are configured to use DHCP. All computers in the branch office are configured to use static IP addresses.

User Information

• ·All user accounts are standard user accounts.
• ·All client computers run Windows 7 Enterprise.
• ·Each portable computer has a PPTP-based VPN connection to the internal network.

Corporate Security Guidelines

• ·All users must be granted the least privileges possible.
• ·All locally stored documents must be encrypted by using Encrypting File System (EFS).
• ·The hard disk drives on all portable computers must be encrypted by using Windows BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker).
• ·All encryption certificates must be stored on smart cards.

End of repeated scenario

The company is deploying a new application.

When users attempt to install the application, they receive an error message indicating that they need administrative privileges to install it.

You need to recommend a solution to ensure that users can install the application. The solution must adhere to the corporate security guidelines.

What should you recommend?

A. Publish the application by using a Group Policy.

B. Disable User Account Control (UAC) by using a Group Policy.

C. Add all domain users to the local Power Users group by using Restricted Groups.

D. Add the current users to the local Administrators group by using Group Policy preferences.

Answer: A

 

6. This question is the first in a series of questions that all present the same scenario.

For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.

Start of repeated scenario

You are an enterprise desktop support technician for A. Datum Corporation.

Active Directory Configuration

The company has three offices. The offices are configured as shown in the following table.

Office	Organizational unit (OU)	Active Directory site	Number of users
Main office	MainOffice	Main office site	1,200
Branch office 1	BranchOffice1	Branch 1 site	500
Branch office 2	BranchOffice2	Branch 2 site	400

The network contains a single Active Directory domain named adatum.com. Two Group Policy objects (GPOs) are configured as shown in the following table.

GPO name	Links	Configuration
Software Updates	MainOffice OU	Configures computers that run Windows 7 in the main office to use a server named WSUS1 for Windows Updates
Certificate Enrollment	adatum.com domain	Enables autoenrollment for computer certificates

Servers

The relevant servers in the main office are configured as shown in the following table.

Server name	Role
DC1	Domain controller, DNS server
DC2	Domain controller, DNS server
DHCP1	DHCP server
WSUS1	Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server
Web1	Web server
CA1	Enterprise root certification authority (CA)
NPS1	Network Policy Server(NPS)

Wireless Network

A wireless network is implemented in the main office. The wireless network is configured to use WPA2-Enterprise security.

Client Configuration

All client computers run Windows 7 Enterprise and are configured to use DHCP. Windows Firewall is disabled on all client computers.

All computers in the research department have Windows XP Mode and Windows Virtual PC installed. You deploy a custom Windows XP Mode image to the research department computers. An application named App1 is installed in the image.

Each research department computer has the following hardware:

• ·4 GB of RAM
• ·Intel Core i7 processor
• ·500-GB hard disk drive

Corporate Security Policy

The corporate security policy includes the following requirements:

• ·Users without domain accounts must be denied access to internal servers.
• ·All connections to the company��s wireless access points must be encrypted.
• ·Only employees can be configured to have user accounts in the Active Directory domain.
• ·The hard disk drives on all portable computers must be encrypted by using Windows BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker).

End of repeated scenario

Users in the research department report that they cannot run App1 or Windows XP Mode.

You need to ensure that all research department users can run App1. You need to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.

What should you do?

A. Approve all Windows 7 updates on WSUS1.

B. Enable hardware virtualization on the research department computers.

C. Give each member of the research department a computer that has an Intel Core i5 processor.

D. Request that a domain administrator create a GPO that configures the Windows Remote Management (WinRM) settings.

Answer: B

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Still hesitant? See the DEMO first

 

1. You design a Business Intelligence (BI) solution by using SQL Server 2008.

You plan to create a SQL Server 2008 Reporting Services (SSRS) solution that contains five sales dashboard reports.

Users must be able to manipulate the reports’ parameters to analyze data.

You need to ensure that the following requirements are met:

��Users can manipulate the parameters for data analysis in a single trip to the data source.

��Reports are automatically rendered as soon as they are accessed for the first time.

Which two tasks should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A. Filter data by using expressions.

B. Specify the default values for each parameter.

C. Create an available values list for each parameter.

D. Create report parameters by using query parameters to filter data at the data source.

Answer: AB

 

2. You design a SQL Server 2008 Reporting Services (SSRS) solution. You create a report by using Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2008.

The report contains the following components:

��A dataset named Customer that lists all active customers and their details. The dataset accepts no parameters.

��A dataset named SalesHistory that lists all sales transactions for a specified time period and accepts year and month as parameters.

You need to ensure that a summary of sales transactions is displayed for each customer after the customer details.

Which component should you add to the report?

A. List

B. Table

C. Matrix

D. Subreport

Answer: D

 

3. You design a Business Intelligence (BI) solution by using SQL Server 2008.

The solution includes a SQL Server 2008 Analysis Services (SSAS) database. The database contains a data mining structure that uses a SQL Server 2008 table as a data source. A table named OrderDetails contains detailed information on product sales. The OrderDetails table includes a column named Markup.

You build a data mining model by using the Microsoft Decision Trees algorithm. You classify Markup as discretized content.

The algorithm produces a large number of branches for Markup and results in low confidence ratings on predictable columns.

You need to verify whether the Markup values include inaccurate data.

What should you do?

A. Modify the content type of Markup as Continuous.

B. Create a data mining dimension in the SSAS database from OrderDetails.

C. Create a data profile by using SQL Server 2008 Integration Services (SSIS).

D. .Create a cube in SSAS. Use OrderDetails as a measure group. Recreate the data mining structure and mining model from the cube data.

Answer: C

 

4. You design a Business Intelligence (BI) solution by using SQL Server 2008.

The solution contains a SQL Server 2008 Analysis Services (SSAS) database. A measure group in the database contains log entries of manufacturing events. These events include accidents, machine failures, production capacity metrics, and other activities.

You need to implement a data mining model that meets the following requirements:

��Predict the frequency of different event types.

��Identify short-term and long-term patterns.

Which algorithm should the data mining model use?

A. the Microsoft Time Series algorithm

B. the Microsoft Decision Trees algorithm

C. the Microsoft Linear Regression algorithm

D. the Microsoft Logistic Regression algorithm

Answer: A

 

5. You design a Business Intelligence (BI) solution by using SQL Server 2008.

The solution includes a SQL Server 2008 Analysis Services (SSAS) database. A cube in the database contains a large dimension named Customers. The database uses a data source that is located on a remote server.

Each day, an application adds millions of fact rows and thousands of new customers.

Currently, a full process of the cube takes several hours.

You need to ensure that queries return the most recent customer data with the minimum amount of latency.

Which cube storage model should you use?

A. hybrid online analytical processing (HOLAP)

B. relational online analytical processing (ROLAP)

C. multidimensional online analytical processing (MOLAP)

D. automatic multidimensional online analytical processing (automatic MOLAP)

Answer: A

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Exam Number/Code : 000-M26
Exam Name : RDi SOA Technical Sales Mastery Test

Questions and Answers : 45Q&A

Update Time : 2010-9-8

 

000-m26 DEMO:

1.What is one key benefit of EGL?

A. It generates Java or COBOL code based on business logic.

B. It requires programmers to have Java or COBOL skills.

C. It does not provide a migration path to Unix/Linux platforms.

D. It provides a fully functional Java development environment.

Answer: A

2.EGL on System i can generate program code for 5250 applications in which programming language?

A. COBOL

B. C

C. RPG

D. PHP

Answer: A

3.Which new System i enhancement is now part of Rational Business Developer?

A. 5250 source converter

B. data queue and data area support

C. Screen Designer

D. RPG debugger

Answer: B

4.Software development with which programming language is supported by Rational Developer for

System i?

A. RPG

B. Java 2

C. EGL

D. SOA

Answer: A

5.What is a primary value proposition of Rational Developer for System i for SOA?

A. It eliminates the need for expensive middleware.

B. It shortens the development cycle of BASIC applications.

C. It reduces the cost of developing web-enabled SOA applications.

D. It produces SOA-based applications using theWebSphere Development Environment.

Answer: C

 

 

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The following explanation comes from the cisco website

Exam Description

The 646-364 CXFA exam is intended primarily for Cisco Channel Partner Account Managers. The exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of:

1. The features and benefits of wireless, security, unified communication, and routing and switching products and solutions.
2. How Cisco’s products and solutions are integrated into a customers network.
3. The competitive differentiators and positioning of the products and solutions.
4. The Cisco Lifecycle Services approach: How to successfully sell, deploy, and support Cisco technologies.

Candidates can take the Cisco Express Foundation for Account Managers v1.3 course on the Partner Education Connection to prepare for the exam.

Exam Topics

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the Remote Access exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

• Describe the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach
• Describe the Cisco products and solutions for Unified Communications
• Describe features and benefits of Cisco Routing and Switching products and solutions
• Describe the Cisco products and solutions for Security
• Describe the Cisco products and solutions for Wireless
• Describe the tools and competitive advantages need to sell effectively

Here are the DEMO questions for Test4actual 646-364:

1. Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series switches are attractive to medium-size campuses with growth

opportunities due to the switches enhanced security and which two other features? (Choose

two)

A. enhanced multilayer software image

B. connectivity to multiple types of WAN connections

C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager

D. QoS for converged networks

E. modular, customizable components

Answer:DE

2. Which companion switch is recommended to be installed with Cisco Smart Business

Communications System?

A. C2950

B. C3750

C. ESW 500

D. SRW224G4}

Answer:C

3. You are at a client site. It is a medium-sized business and needs a Cisco Catalyst switch that

offers high availability and security. What type of Catalyst switches would you recommend?

A. Catalyst 2960 Series

B. Catalyst 3750 Series

C. Catalyst 4900 Series

D. Catalyst 6500 Series

Answer:A

4. The Cisco Unified Wireless Network minimizes the TCO and maximizes woreless network

uptime by optimizing which two deployment, management, and security features?(Choose

two)

A. unified wireless and wired infrastructure for a single point of control for all WLAN

traffic

B. simplified management of central or remotely located access points

C. extension features to wired network services, such as denial of service prevention and

ACLs

D. threat defense with a robust wired IDS

Answer:AB

5. What would you use to enforce security-policy compliance on all devices that seek to access

the network?

A. VLAN

B. NAC

C. EAP

D. WLAN

Answer:B

6. Which three business requirements development activities are performed in the prepare

phase before creating a technology strategy? (Choose three)

A. identifying and assessing customer business requirements

B. documenting and categorizing customer business requirements in terms of performance,

availability, capacity and security

C. producing a documented technology strategy

D. creating a bill of materials

E. presenting documented business requirements to a customer and having the customer

validate them

F. completing a site survey

Answer:ABE

7. The price of Cisco Small Business Pro Service is based on the complexity of the device that

is being covered. How many different price points for these devices are available?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

Answer:A

8. Why can security on healthcare networks be an important issue for customers?

A. offers a rapid return on investment

B. telecommuting

C. multiple network connections

D. legal mandates

Answer:C

9. A new client of yours is experiencing a growth spurt. The client s IT staff is making network

changes manually and, as a consequence, is extremely overworked, You suggest the client

implement a network management system, citing which important business benefit?

A. potential for outsourcing the IT staff

B. provision of an out-of-band management architeture

C. threat mitigation

D. reduction in network downtime

Answer:D

10. In which of these phases is a customer s current network infrastructure assessed?

A. plan

B. design

C. implement

D. prepare

Answer:A

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000-m32 Exam DEMO :

 

1.Which statement is true about Net Search Extender (NSE)?

A. It is installed automatically.

B. It is transactional.

C. It is namespace aware.

D. It is XML aware.

Answer: D

2.What must be run in order for the optimizer to determine the frequency of data in the database?

A. XMLQUERY

B. XMLEXISTS

C. RUNSTATS

D. Net Search Extender (NSE)

Answer: C

3.What is NOT a recommendation concerning page size for XML?

A. have only one page size in the entire database with a single buffer pool

B. use the largest page size possible when managing relational data

C. be mindful that documents with fewer regions offer better performance

D. choose page size depending on document size

Answer: B

4.Which statement is true about DB2 Net Search Extender (NSE)?

A. It is an Internet search product like Google.

B. It is an extension that provides excellent text search capabilities for e-business applications.

C. It is a generalized free text search product like Verity or Autonomy.

D. It is an XML database that supports application requirements.

Answer: B

5.Which XML document is well-formed?

A. <a><b>bla</a>

B. <a><b>bla</b></a>

C. <a></a>

D. <b>bla</b>

<c>blub</c>

Answer: B

 

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Product Description

 

Exam Number/Code : 000-550

Exam Name : IBM solidDB and IBM solidDB Universal Cache

Questions and Answers : 106Q&A

Update Time : 2010-6-26

Price :  $109.00

 

“IBM solidDB and IBM solidDB Universal Cache”, also known as 000-550 exam, is a IBM certification.With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 106 Q&As to your 000-550 Exam preparation. In the 000-550 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in IBM certifications helping to ready you for your successful IBM Certification.

 

The Questions & Answers are the same as your real test. We ensure you pass it with high scores.Otherwise, we will give you full refund.

 

Still see the DEMO first :

 

1.Which software components must be installed to deploy IBM solidDB Universal Cache and provide

access to data residing in an IBM DB2 database?

A. IBM solidDB, IBM InfoSphere CDC for solidDB, IBM DB2, IBM InfoSphere CDC for DB2, IBM

InfoSphere CDC Access Server, and IBM InfoSphere CDC Management Console

B. IBM solidDB, IBM DB2, IBM Universal Cache for DB2,IBM InfoSphere CDC Replication Center,

and IBM InfoSphere CDC Management Console

C. IBM solidDB, IBM InfoSphere CDC for solidDB, IBM DB2, IBM InfoSphere CDC Access Server,

and IBM InfoSphere CDC Management Console

D. IBM solidDB, IBM InfoSphere CDC for solidDB, IBM DB2, IBM InfoSphere CDC for DB2, IBM

InfoSphere CDC Replication Center, and IBM InfoSphere CDC Management Console

Answer: A

2.To set up solidDB in a standalone, HotStandby or Universal Cache configuration, where can the

configuration be performed?

A. The configuration is performed from the command line using the solid command with suitable

option settings and values.

B. The configuration needs to be set in a solid.ini file.

C. The configurations can be set up by using the solsql tool and the operating system services file.

D. The standalone configuration is set in the solid.ini file while the HotStandby and Universal

Cache configuration is set using the sqlcon tool.

Answer: B

3.When setting the [HotStandby]SafenessLevel = Auto, which two statements are true about

transaction durability and HotStandby safeness level? (Choose two.)

A. SafenessLevel switches to 1-safe when using [Logging]DurabilityLevel = 1(Relaxed).

B. SafenessLevel switches to 2-safe when using [Loggng]DurabilityLevel = 2(Adaptive).

C. SafenessLevel switches to 1-safe when using [Logging]DurabilityLevel = 3(Strict).

D. SafenessLevel switches to 2-safe when using [Logging]DurabiltyLevel = 4(Custom).

E. SafenessLevel switches to 1-safe when using [Logging]DurabiltyLevel = 2(Adaptive).

Answer: A,B

4. To administer a HotStandby database you need which privilege?

A. Sys_Sync_Admin_Role

B. Sys_Console_Role

C. Sys_Hotstandby_Role

D. Sys_Replication_Role

Answer: B

5.To execute the HotStandby administrative commands, which type of access privilege would be

needed?

A. SYS_ADMIN_SYNC_ROLE

B. SYNC_ADMIN_ROLE

C. ADMIN_CONSOLE_ROLE

D. SYS_CONSOLE_ROLE

Answer: D

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see the DEMO first:

 

1. Which two statements best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access

points when implementing Wireless Domain Services? (Choose two)

A. The primary Layer 2 WDS server address is configured via the infrastructure access

point GUI

B. The primary Layer 2 WDS server address is automatically discovered by the

infrastructure access points through multicast

C. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest MAC address, followed by priority

number

D. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest priority number, followed by MAC

address

E. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest IP address, followed by MAC

address

Answer:BD

2. Which companion switch is recommended to be installed with Cisco Smart Business

Communications System?

A. C2950

B. C3750

C. ESW 500

D. SRW224G4

Answer:C

3.

Refer to the exhibit. A host on the Sales subnet (10.0.2.0/24) is not able to initiate a web

connection to an outside website. According to the network diagram and partial Cisco

Configuration Professional configuration shown in the exhibit. What is the cause of the problem?

A. The dynamic NAT global pool is not configured correctly

B. The source networks for static NAT are not configured correctly

C. The administrator has not added an access list to allow the collection

D. The source network for dynamic NAT is not configured correctly

Answer:D

4. In which of these phase is a customer ¯ s curr ent net wor k i nfr astr uct ur e assessed

A. plan

B. design

C. implement

D. prepare

Answer:A

5. What are two ways to secure traffic across a network? (Choose two)

A. Cisco ISR G2

B. Identify-management devices

C. ACLs

D. Firewalls

E. VPN connection

F. VLANs

Answer:DE

6. You have just configured HSRP and need to determine which router is active. Which

command should you enter?

A. Show ip hsrp active

B. Show standby active

C. Show standby

D. Show active

Answer:C

7. What do radio-wave radiation patterns allow you to determine when you are implementing

wireless networks?

A. Size of the coverage area

B. Which antenna is being used

C. Temperature of the coverage area

D. Shape of the coverage area

Answer:A

8. Which command assigns a cost value of 17

to a switch port?

A. Spanning-tree interface fastethernet 5/8 17

B. Spanning-tress portcost 17

C. Spanning-tree port cost 17

D. Spanning-tree cost 17}

Answer:D

9. Which command displays the routing information that will be used to move data between

VLANs on a router on a disk?

A. Router# show ip protocols

B. Router# show ip route

C. Router# show vlan[vlan_ID]

D. Router# show vlan route

Answer:B

10. What were two primary design purpose for ISRs? (Choose two)

A. To provide a centralized threat database for IPS sensors

B. To bring IP technology, voice mail, email, and firewall services to the end user

C. To implement and to integrate fully network services such as security, WAN routing,

and Ethernet switching

D. To offer Fast Ethernet and 10 Gigabit Ethernet as a high-speed routing platform

E. To be a next-generation, high-performance routing platform

F. To provide all security-management functions in one high-performance device

Answer:BC

 

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Test4actual update the 642-374 !

The 642-374 CXFS exam is intended primarily for Cisco Channel Partner Systems or Sales Engineers. The exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of:

1.Assessing customers’ wireless, security, unified communications and routing and switching requirements, providing technical descriptions of solutions, identifying specific advantages of selecting Cisco solutions and developing detailed network designs for a customer’s network requirements.
2.The Cisco Lifecycle Services approach: How to successfully sell, deploy, and support Cisco technologies.

Candidates can take the Cisco Express Foundation for Systems Engineers v1.3 course on the Partner Education Connection to prepare for the exam.

This exam is 75 minutes of examination time, needs to test 60-70 questions! We have updated the exam cost a fortune, many people are looking for cheap item bank, now that we provide the latest, because we own the VUE center!

Before purchasing, you can look under the DEMO, and then make a decision!

 

1. A potential client wants inexpensive remote access and fast deployment of new sites. Which two

options would you focus on? (Choose two)

A. ACL management

B. cable and DSL route models

C. Cisco AnyConnect and SSL VPN

D. CBAC

E. remote security

Answer:BC

2. When should you run multiple protocols?

A. when you want to decrease the complexity of the network

B. when you want easier optimization

C. when you migrate from an old IGP to a new IGP

D. when you want higher efficiency

Answer:C

3. Which statement concerning the Active/Active failover feature is correct?

A. ASA security Appliance failover pair must have either an Unrestricted and UR license or a UR and

FO-A/A license to be able to support Active/Active failover

B. If an active security context within the primary security appliance fails , the status of the primary

security appliance unit changes to failed , while the secondary failover security appliance unit transitions

to active

C. Active/Active failover is supported in multiple mode

configuration only

D. Active/Active failover supports site-to-site IPSec VPN stateful failover

Answer:C

4. Cisco ISR Routers offer which three of these security benefits?(Choose three)

A. Onboard VPN accelerator

B. events correlation and proactive response

C. high-performance AIM VPN modules

D. virtual firewall

E. Cisco IOS firewall and IOS IPS

F. transparent firewall

Answer:ACE

5. What is used to avoid power drops and running power to access points?

A. Cisco Aironet 1140 series

B. End-point PSE

C. Midspan PSE

D. PoE-enabled switches

Answer:D

6. Which two WAN interfaces does the Cisco SRP 520 Series support? (Choose two)

A. Fibre Channel

B. ADSL2+

C. serial

D. Fast Ethernet

E. passive optical network(PON)

Answer:BD

7. A customer is considering purchasing either a Cisco Catalyst 2960 or Cisco Catalyst Express

500.Which feature can be only found on the Catalyst 2960?

A. 48 Ethernet 10/100 ports

B. Fast Ethernet and Gigabit Ethernet connectivity

C. dual-purpose copper or fiber uplinks

D. standalone fixed-configuration Layer 2 switching

Answer:A

8. How does the Cisco Small Business Pro Service differ from the Cisco Small Business Pro Warranty?

A. Access to Cisco Small Business Support Community

B. device-level warranty

C. Cisco Small Business Pro products only

D. speed of hardware replacement

Answer:A

9. Which combination of port is available on the Cisco SPA 8800 voice gateway?

A. one station port and one trunk port (1xFXS and 1xFXO)

B. two station ports (2xFXS)

C. four station ports and four trunk ports (4xFXS and 4xFXO)

D. eight station ports (8xFXS)

Answer:C

10. Which pre-sales SMART design documents are available to help you implement and install a solution?

(Choose three)

A. Quick Quoting tool

B. Small Business Product Guide

C. Smart Business Communications system

D. Solution Profile

E. Overview presentation

F. Cisco Configuration Assistant

Answer:BDE

 

Other exam : 642-384

Network Appliance certification? Do you Know? Many people want to have this certification! Because its authority!
test4actual always kept up to date on the braindumps, such as NS0-153, which is an exam in prometric center, we have updated in the 2010-9-2! Welcome new and old customers to consult!

 

Product Description

Exam Number/Code: NS0-153
Exam Name: Network Appliance

Questions&Answers:76Q&A
Update Time:2010-9-2
Price:$99.00

 

Look the DEMO first :

 

1. NTFS allows file access based on ___________.

A.NT ACLs and UNIX permissions.

B.SID and password.

C.NT ACLs and SID.

D.UNIX permissions.

ANSWER: C

 

 

2. Which two are used for creating LUNs on a storage system? (Choose two.)

A.lun create

B.lun setup

C.lun config

D.lun make

ANSWER: AB

 

 

3. What mechanism allows you to make LUNs available to some initiators and unavailable to others?

A.LUN masking

B.LUN hiding

C.LUN grouping

D.LUN cloning

ANSWER: A

 

 

4. An iSCSI or FC SAN implementation provides _____ access to LUNs.

A.file

B.block

C.VLD

D.VIIP

ANSWER: B

 

 

5. Which are characteristics of an iSCSI or FCP SAN implementation? (Choose three.)

A.LUNs can be accessed using the iSCSI protocol.

B.LUNs can be accessed using the FCP protocol.

C.A LUN can be converted into a VLD.

D.Block services are associated with an iSCSI or FCP SAN environment.

ANSWER: ABD

 

Ns0-154 : Data ONTAP 8.0 7-Mode Administrator

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